Ben Grant
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bengrantmath.bsky.social
Ben Grant
@bengrantmath.bsky.social
PhD candidate in math at UConn. Interested in cluster algebras, representation theory, algebraic combinatorics, dimer models, knot theory, and logic. he/him/his

https://sites.google.com/view/benjamingrant
For the longest time, I tried to convince myself that I didn’t find combinatorics all that interesting, and that if I found anything interesting about it, it was probably just because it was similar to something I liked about abstract algebra. Turns out it was the other way around this whole time
October 18, 2025 at 12:47 AM
let alone one of the form we are interested in, x_n=f^n(x). So f cannot exist.

Thanks for reading!

/end/
October 16, 2025 at 1:52 AM
contradiction with the assumption that (x_n) is an integer sequence, since L=1+1/k requires our (integer!!) differences between consecutive terms to eventually be arbitrarily close to 1+1/k, which no integer is. So there doesn’t even exist an integer sequence (x_n) with x_{n+k}-x_n=k+1 for all n,
October 16, 2025 at 1:52 AM
We can rewrite the LHS as a telescoping sum with k terms:

x_{n+k}-x_{n+k-1}+…+x_{n+1}-x_n=k+1.

Taking the limit on both sides as n—>infty (and letting L be the same limit as in the previous problem), we see that kL=k+1.

But then L=1+1/k, which is not an integer (since k is at least 2). This is a
October 16, 2025 at 1:52 AM
use this technique for: suppose we are told to show that for any fixed natural number k at least 2, there does not exist a function f:Z—>Z such that f^k(x)=x+(k+1) for all x in Z. Run the same “replace f^i(x) with x_{n+i}” bit we did before and rearrange to get x_{n+k}-x_n=k+1 for all n \geq 0.
October 16, 2025 at 1:52 AM
f(x)=x-4 does indeed satisfy this functional equation, but this is easy to verify).

I think this is a pretty neat method. Like I said, I wasn’t familiar with it until yesterday, so forgive me if this is a common trick you have seen before, since I certainly hadn’t.

Another quick application we can
October 16, 2025 at 1:52 AM
In this case, x_0=x is some fixed x in Z and x_1=f(x_0)=f(x). We now know that x_1=x_0-4=x-4 by the above, so f(x)=x-4. But this holds for arbitrary x in Z, so we have our answer: the only function f:Z—>Z such that f(f(x))-4f(x)+3x=8 for all x in Z is f(x)=x-4 (one should technically also check that
October 16, 2025 at 1:52 AM
n+1 on, then it also is from term n on. This allows us to conclude that (x_n) is genuinely an arithmetic progression.

Therefore, all of (x_n) just depends on x_0: we see that x_n=x_0-4n for any n \geq 0. In particular, x_1=x_0-4.

Let’s go back to the case we were interested in to begin with.
October 16, 2025 at 1:52 AM
arithmetic progression, but that is an arithmetic progression in its entirety. Indeed, if n is such that x_{n+2}-x_{n+1}=-4, then by massaging our two-step recurrence a tiny bit, we can see that

x_{n+1}-x_n=-1/3*(8-(x_{n+2}-x_{n+1}))
=-1/3*(8-(-4))
=-1/3*12
=-4.

So if (x_n) is arithmetic from term
October 16, 2025 at 1:52 AM
means that if the differences between consecutive terms *approach* -4, then at some point they actually *are* -4 and they stay that way (since these differences are integers!). Thus, (x_n) is eventually arithmetic with common difference -4.

Next, we can show that (x_n) is not just eventually an
October 16, 2025 at 1:52 AM
L=lim_{n—>infty} (x_{n+1}-x_n). Then (after some mild regrouping on the LHS), we may take limits on either side of our recurrence to get L-3L=8, which gives L=-4. Therefore, the difference between consecutive terms in our sequence approaches -4. But recall that (x_n) is an INTEGER sequence. This
October 16, 2025 at 1:52 AM
when applied to x_n for any n. The idea is that if we can determine properties of *any* integer sequence (x_n) satisfying this two-step linear recurrence, then we can do it for our specific sequence x_n=f^n(x).

We can first show that (x_n) is *eventually* arithmetic with common difference -4. Let
October 16, 2025 at 1:52 AM
about integer sequences (x_n : n \geq 0). Fix x, and let x_n=f^n(x) be the nth composite power of f applied to x (i.e., we’re taking f^0=id, f^1=f, f^2=f°f, etc.). Then the functional equation above becomes x_2-4x_1+3x_0=8 when applied to our specific x, or more generally, x_{n+2}-4x_{n+1}+3x_n=8
October 16, 2025 at 1:52 AM
Reposted by Ben Grant
from now on I'm just going to truncate the taylor series for sin at the first term. sin(x) = 0 for all x. this approximation

- is efficient to compute
- has bounded error
- has excellent analytic properties
- has very high accuracy for small values, which occur frequently in applications
October 8, 2025 at 5:21 PM
the award or an HM, but because it feels like this reviewer didn’t take my application seriously at all, and I worry that I’m not the only person this happened to. End of rant, thanks for reading.
October 4, 2025 at 12:30 PM
algebraic combinatorics— this reviewer was leaving comments about my desire to do research in “set theory,” about “supercompactness,” and about “the combinatorics of the first singular cardinal.” I did not mention any of these whatsoever.

I am mostly just disappointed, not because I didn’t receive
October 4, 2025 at 12:30 PM
were almost directly copied but with additional typos that I didn’t make (???), but by far the most annoying part to me is that other bullet points were about things that I just *did not talk about at all* in my application. For context, the focus of my proposal was in representation theory and
October 4, 2025 at 12:30 PM
detailed reviews that demonstrated they, at a minimum, read and thought about my statement and proposal. The third reviewer, on the other hand, left as their comments a relatively incoherent mix of bullet-point-style remarks. Some of these points were directly copied pieces of my statements, some
October 4, 2025 at 12:30 PM
question, but it seems (to me) like a very natural point of view nonetheless.
September 12, 2025 at 11:13 PM
the “regular functions” on A^n into an object R_n (i.e., taking R_n=Hom(A^n,A)) should give you the “algebraic” dual of the “geometric” A^n. Then duals of mappings f:A^n—>A^m are just their images f^*:R_m—>R_n under Hom(-,A).

I am not sure if this gives a reasonable answer to the original duality
September 12, 2025 at 11:13 PM
This is perhaps naive and not-so-well-thought-out, but it seems to me like the question here might be interesting to look at from an algebraic geometry perspective. Morphisms A^n—>A appearing in an algebraic structure might be understood as “regular functions” on A^n as an “affine space.” Collecting
September 12, 2025 at 11:13 PM