yes

i feel conflicted about riska

well now i just feel insulted, keep my mother out of this.

...which is a prime example of vowels holding less semantic value than consonants?

ok, I'll delete the post and make a more specific one

the advice i gave is only applicable for very few contexts, not meant to be used generally

im not just talking about english/European Languages btw i just mean in general

I imagine this could be because vowels are more likely to change diacronically, so interdialectal loaning could happen to produce these varients, idk im just pulling shit out of my ass

bro youre saying this like its an inherent fact of the universe…

like you'd think any phoneme of a language would just be as likely to hold the same amount of semantic value right?

isnt it weird how its more likely that the difference in "variants" of a stem are in the vowel than the consonants

the only difference between them is how much they depend on other semantic forms

it can go on a broad spectrum like this:

- nouns, verbs
- adjectives, adverbs
- prepositions, conjunctions
- discourse marker/indicator
- TAM
- person inflection
- ect.