Your questions are valid. Our claim and our model are bold. But for the time being the cross-sectional Pew data, the WVS data and also longitudinal WVS data for 17 countries corroborate our model. Of course, the theory will also have to pass future tests! Time will tell.

In the article, we write: While we do not doubt that historical contingencies are important, our findings suggest that secularization processes may be more similar across the world than was previously thought.

What historical literature contradicts us?

I realise that our claim may provoke. But if there is really a secular transition that is similar to the demographic transition - then it might be a universal phenomenon. It's an empirical question.

And we bring data to the table that prove our point.

Well, the following sentence says: "However, religious decline is more pronounced in some countries and the diminishing aspects of religion vary by context." This is the tethering.

We talk to historians, too: Hugh McLeod for example.